I have charged VAT to France and the UK and filed in in my VAT returns.
My accountant tells me that I shouldn't have done that as long as they are VAT registered on there side.
I'm not great at this stuff, so best to phone the Tax office, you can get good service on the phone for this kind of thing.
You sure that's right for intra-EU transactions (aside from individual states that have tresholds above which you must reigster for a local VAT number)?
If they give you a VAT number and you check it on the link I provided and its not there then you charge them VAT. It's as simple as that.
Not disputing that!
I am disputing the rate at which you charge VAT. My understanding is that for intra-EU transactions, you charge VAT at your local rate, unless you trade over a threshold where the buyer's state require to register for VAT in their country.
I can't see that applying to most on this forum. Whereas, you're suggesting that you charge VAT at the buyer's rate regardless of your trade amount with their state.
Quite simply, not true! The only companies that I'm aware of in the UK to charge an Irish customer 21% VAT, are those larger companies that are required to register in Ireland (and thus charge Irish VAT rates). This doesn't apply to many, many companies in the UK (for example).This minor change means, now when I order from the UK the price is:
Price+21%
If I take 5million a year from Germany or France why would the rate at which I charge my customers in them countries be any different.
For straight forward products & services transactions (to be consumed in the US by a US company), no.Does anybody know whether we should be charging VAT on services to U.S. based clients?
By "working for" do you mean a buyer/seller relationship, or an employment relationship? If the former, 0 VAT applies (again, subject to them being a US co., consuming in the US ,etc)What should be the VAT for a designer working from Ireland for an American company? Are there any exceptions or anything we should be aware of?
Correct. For intra-EU trading where one's total income from a given EU state falls below that state's obligatory VAT registration, you charge 0 VAT to a party in that state, provided they produce a valid VAT number for that state. If you trade over the threshold you must register for VAT in that state, charge that state's rates, and declare/pay to that state. Your accountant (who should be trusted more than me!) is dead right.My accountant tells me that I shouldn't have done that as long as they are VAT registered on there side.
OKQuite simply, not true! The only companies that I'm aware of in the UK to charge an Irish customer 21% VAT, are those larger companies that are required to register in Ireland (and thus charge Irish VAT rates). This doesn't apply to many, many companies in the UK (for example).
A UK company selling €40K services to a valid VAT registered (irish) company = no VATSo a UK company selling less than €37,000 of services to Ireland would charge an Irish business with a valid Irish VAT number 0 VAT. A UK company selling more than €37,000 (total sales, not per invoice) would charge the Irish company 21% VAT. The same applies for other EU countries.
What you've been implying in earlier posts that all intra-EU trade with the UK requires the UK seller to charge Irish VAT rates is, in my understanding, incorrect. That's my point (even if it has dragged on now!).